The following excerpt is taken from Predestined to Believe (2ed.)

Dear Wesley,

I fully understand and appreciate the reasons you gave for believing Jesus Christ died on the cross for all of humanity without exception. Your position seems quite plausible at first glance especially in light of several passages you sent that seem to substantiate your convictions. Let me first address one of the verses you cited in support of your position, specifically, John 1:29, and consider some practical ramifications of interpreting the way you have. "The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, ‘Look, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!’" Sounds plain enough. How could anyone rightly refute such clear teaching of Scripture? The answer for me did not come easily. I had to think deeply about these verses for years before I reached a conclusion. I was not truly convinced of my own position until I encountered a Reformed elder who helped me to consider some things that I had never before pondered. Perhaps a brief dialogue of a typical conversation will help clarify the differences between the positions and might help to explain my position more succinctly. 

Paul: For whom did Christ die?

John: Christ died for everyone as John 3:16 states. "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life."

Paul: Is there any other possible interpretation of "world" as stated in John 3:16?

John: Absolutely not. John 3:16 is unequivocal in declaring for whom Christ died. That is to say, Jesus Christ died for everyone without exception.

Paul: But if you are correct in stating Christ died for everyone, is there anyone that goes to hell?

John: Of course there is. Don’t be absurd.

Paul: Why are people in hell if Christ died for their sins?

John: People are in hell because of their unbelief.

Paul: You just said that Christ died for the sins of everyone. If He died a substitutionary death and satisfied God’s wrath in order to bring salvation to mankind, then it logically follows that Christ suffered the punishment for all sins—including the sin of unbelief. God could not justly condemn unbelievers to eternal punishment after Christ satisfied God’s wrath for the sins of the world. Since Christ died for all of humanity, His death on the cross fulfilled the necessary sacrifice. If, however, you still deny that Christ paid for the sin of unbelief, you must also deny that Christ satisfied God’s wrath. And if God’s wrath was not satisfied, we are all in trouble, and all face eternal peril. This is the ultimate outcome of your argument when carried to its logical conclusion.

Now the above dialogue demonstrates the inconsistencies inherent to the argument that passages describing Christ as dying for the "world" should be interpreted to mean that Christ died for everyone without exception. Admittedly, such thinking is appealing to think that Christ died for everyone, and it sounds good to tell people that, but it is not grounded in biblical truth. Think of what it would mean to serve a God who accepts an offering for one sin, but rejects the same offering for a different sin after having established the terms on which His wrath could be satisfied. What would it say about God that He sent His own Son to take away the sin of the world only to reject the sacrifice for a particular sin? I would submit to you that it would make God arbitrary, and it would also make Him cruel. What are we to think of God who sent His Son to die for the sins of the world then refuse to accept His Son’s sacrifice unconditionally and subsequently punish unbelievers by condemning them to an eternity in the lake of fire even after Christ had obeyed God and died for their sins? It would mean that God is guilty of double jeopardy in that He exacts punishment from man after having punished His Son. Even our justice system recognizes the fundamental flaw of double jeopardy and strictly condemns it. If our justice system understands the egregious nature of double jeopardy, how much more perfectly does God?

Beyond what has already been written, an omnipotent God cannot fail in achieving what He intended. God ordained a specific purpose for a specific people that He intended to save from the beginning (Rev. 13:8). His mission was defined even before His birth, just as the angel had promised. "He shall save his people from their sins" (Matt 1:21). Scripture makes it clear that Christ had a definite charge that He would certainly fulfill. When God has a plan, it shall come to pass. Take comfort in knowing that God is not arbitrary. He defines His mission and is successful in bringing it to fruition.

I promise to write soon to further explain the different ways in which universal terms such as "all" and "world" are used throughout the Bible. Maybe that will then help to clarify the difficulties many see in universalistic passages.

Your affectionate uncle,
Luke